(b) It is a potent means of creating new knowledge

(c) It has moved to the centre of the bahavioural sciences

(d) It provides answers to many problems faced by educators.

102. What is not essential about a research problem?

(a) It should be amenable to research

(b) It should be significant

(c) It should lead to new knowledge

(d) It should lead to theory building.

103. If ? 2 > 3 the curve is called

(a) Mesokurtic.

(b) Teptokurtic.

(c) Platykurtic.

(d) Positively skewed.

104. In a given distribution X = 20, ¦ = 16, the coefficient of variation is

(a) 320%.

(b) 80%.

(c) 36%.

(d) 4%.

105. Q.D. equals

(a) 2/3s.

(b) l/3s.

(c) Is.

(d) Zero.

106. Mean deviation equals

(a) l/3s.

(b) 4/5s.

(c) 1/5 Q.D.

(d) 5/6 Q.D.

107. In a normal distribution, 100 per cent of observations are covered by the following

(a) 3.09 s.

(b) 3 s.

(c) 2 s.

(d) s.

108. In a moderately skewed distribution = 100, V= 35 and j (coefficient of skewness) = 0.2, the value of mode is

(a) 35.

(b) 67.

(c) 93.

(d) 103.

109. Karl Pearson’s coefficient of skewness of a distribution is 0.4. Its mean is 30. The value of mediun will be

(a) 25.63.

(b) 28.93.

(c) 31.25.

(d) 34.15.

110. What can Statistics do?

(a) Prove anything

(b) Disprove anything

(c) Neither prove nor disprove anything-is just a tool

(d) None of these.

111. Who said, Statistics has been defined as “The Science of Counting”?

(a) Bowley

(b) Galton

(c) Stephen King

(d) R.A.Fisher.

112. On what is placed reliance in most investigations?

(a) Secondary data

(b) Primary data

(c) Both primary and secondary data

(d) None of these.

113. What is true about Secondary data?

(a) Should never be used

(b) Should be used after careful scrutiny

(c) No scrutiny is required while using it

(d) While scrutinising, only thing to see is who collected it.

114. What should be the number of questions in a questionnaire?

(a) 5

(b) 15

(c) 20

(d) As small as possible keeping in view the purpose of the survey.

115. What is the reliability of Primary data?

(a) Always more reliable compared to secondary data

(b) Less reliable compared to secondary data

(c) Depends on the care with which data have been collected

(d) Depends on the agency collecting the data.

116. The only thing to be seen before using Secondary data is that they are

(a) Reliable.

(b) Adequate for the purpose in hand.

(c) Representative.

(d) All of these.

117. Which average is affected most by extreme observations?

(a) Median

(b) Mode

(c) Arithmetic mean

(d) Geometric mean.

118. Mode is

(a) Middle most value.

(b) Least frequent value.

(c) Most frequent value.

(d) Represents majority out of total frequency.

119. Which of the following are positional averages?

(a) Arithmetic mean

(b) Median

(c) Geometric mean

(d) Harmonic mean.

120. An average should be used to typify

(a) A biodal distribution.

(b) Multimodel distribution.

(c) V-shaped distribution.

(d) A distribution showing a clear, single concentration of observations.

121. The sum of absolute deviations of items is minimum from

(a) Median.

(b) Mode.

(c) Geometric mean.

(d) Harmonic mean.

122. Which of the following statement is correct?

(a) A. m.

(b) A. m.>Gm.>H. m.

(c) A.m.>Gm.

(d) Gm.>A. m.

123. The value of mean, mediun and mode coincide in case of

(a) Positively skewed distribution.

(b) Negatively skewed distribution.

(c) Symmetrical distribution.

(d) All of these.

124. Which of the following is the most unstable average?

(a) Median

(b) Arithmetic mean

(c) Mode

(d) Geometric mean.

125. Step deviation method to estimate arithmetic mean can be applied only when

(a) It is an individual series we are examining.

(b) It is a discrete series.

(c) It is continuous series.

(d) Deviations are divisible by a common factor.

126. Given below is the Charlier’s check of accuracy of computation of arithmetic mean f(dx+ l)=Sfdx+x

(a) Sf.

(b) Sfdx’.

(c) Sfdx).

(d) f(Sdx).

127. In the series given below

Marks No. of students

More than 50

10 46

20 40

30 26

40 10

50 3

The number of students securing up to 40 marks is

(a) 20

(b) 30

(c) 40

(d) 46

128. If from all the items in a distribution, a value X is subtracted, the arithmetic mean of the new series will be

129. The average weight of a group of 25 boys was calculated to be 78.4 lbs. It was later discovered that the weight of one boy was misread as 69 lbs instead of 96 lb. The correct average is

(a) 78.48.

(b) 79.00.

(c) 79.48.

(d) 79.84.

130. The average age of 10 students in a class is 17 years. If one of them who is 26 years old leaves the school, the average age will be

(a) 15 years.

(b) 16 years.

(c) 17 years.

(d) 18 years.

131. In the formula given below

132. The mean age of 40 students is 16 years and the mean age of another group of 60 students is 20 years. The mean age of all the 100 students is

(a) 16.8 years.

(b) 18 years,

(c) 18.4 years.

(d) 18.8 years.

133. An auto-ride costs Rs. 5 for the first 1.6 km and Rs. 0.50 per additional 100-metres. The cost for each distance unit is incurred at the beginning of the unit, so that the rider pays for the whole unit. The average cost for a 8 km ride is

(a) Rs. 5.25.

(b) Rs.4.75.

(c) Rs. 4.62.

(d) Rs. 4.54.

134. The arithmetic mean of the direct 100 natural, numbers is

(a) 25.7.

(b) 50.5.

(c) 55.2.

(d) 60.1.

135. The sum of deviations taken from actual arithmetic mean is

(a) Zero.

(b) Negative,

(c) Positive.

(d) Infinite.

136. In the given series 71, 72,64,68,70,76,73,75, the median is

(a) 71.

(b) 71.5.

(c) 72.

(d) 72.5.

137. Given the following distribution

X F

0-20 0

2040 5

40-60 22

60-80 25

80-100 16

The value of median is

(a) 60.5.

(b) 65.0.

(c) 65.6.

(d) 66.6.

138. The difference between a personality inventory and an intelligence test is

(a) Of length.

(b) Of style.

(c) Of right and wrong answers.

(d) Of foreign make.

139. Which of the following is not related to increasing the sensivity of the t-test?

(a) Reducing the level of noise

(b) Increasing the sample size

(c) Increasing the reliability of measures

(d) All of these.

140. Which is modern method of research?

(a) Case Study

(b) Authority

(c) Scientific Method

(d) Discussion.

141. When a researcher conducts an experiment he or she wants to be sure that any differences between the control and experiment groups are due to

(a) The hypothesis.

(b) The experimental manipulation.

(c) Differences among the subjects.

(d) The operational definition.

142. In an experiment, the dependent variable

(a) Provides a standard on which group differences can be measured.

(b) Is the aspect of the experiment that is controlled and manipulated by the experimenter?

(c) Represents the effect and is measured by the experimenter.

(d) Is an extraneous variable.

143. By substracting the lowest score from the highest score, researchers are able to deter­mine the

(a) Median score.

(b) Mode.

(c) Range of scores.

(d) Standard deviations.

144. Stephen M. Corey is associated with

(a) Action research.

(b) Applied research.

(c) Pure research.

(d) Scientific research.

145. The scope of Educational research is very vast. The problems included are

(a) Educational.

(b) Sociological,

(c) Philosophical.

(d) Mathematical.

146. Most of the beginners in research suffer from

(a) Problem blindness.

(b) Too many problems.

(c) Lack of training to tend a problem.

(d) None of these.

147. How many sources of Educational research have been identified by or admitted by Good, Barr and Scates?

(a) Three

(b) Four

(c) Five

(d) Seven.

148. Delimitation of a problem means

(a) What of research.

(b) Why of research.

(c) How many of research.

(d) Drawing a boundary round it.

149. “Hypothesis, is a tentative information or provisional guess which seems and explains the situation under observation. Who defined Hypothesis as this?

(a) John W. Best

(b) James E. Greetan

(c) Lokesh Kaul

(d) K.S. Sidhu.

150. Null, Prediction, Declaration, Question are

(a) Forms of hypothesis.

(b) Types of hypothesis.

(c) Variations.

(d) None of these.

151. A research hypothesis is generally converted into Null hypothesis.

(a) It is safer.

(b) It cannot be tested statistically.

(c) It is a general statement.

(d) It is a vague statement.

152. Explain F Ratio.

(a) A ratio between mean SSA and mean SSW.

(b) A ratio which is always more than 1.0.

(c) A ratio between mean SST and mean SSA.

(d) A ratio between mean SST and mean SSW.

153. In the list of shortcoming of Educational Research in India presented in the 4th survey, which of the following was not included?

(a) Absence of clear educational perspective

(b) Absence of conceptual frame work

(c) Inadequate understanding of research process

(d) Absence of reliability and validity of research.

154. What is the main purpose of survey of related studies?

(a) To avoid duplication

(b) To know methods of attack

(c) To know what is already known

(d) Insight into methods.

155. Which is the don’t in survey of related literature?

(a) Turn the summary of the journal or the article

(b) In taking notes, be as brief as possible

(c) Do not hurry

(d) Be accurate.

156. The method of research may be selected on the basis of

(a) Purpose of research.

(b) Type of control.

(c) Source of data.

(d) All of these.

157. Data means

(a) Facts.

b) Observations,

(c) Truths.

(d) Marks obtained.

158. What is the basis of collection of data?

(a) Clarity

(b) Stability

(c) Flexibility

(d) All of these.

159. Level of significance means

(a) Probability of rejecting small hypothesis.

(b) Probability of accepting null hypothesis.

(c) Probability of accepting the research hypothesis.

(d) Probability of rejecting’ research hypothesis.

160. What is population?

(a) Totality of objects or individuals

(b) Males and Females

(c) Only the choosen ones

(d) All of these.

161. A sample represents

(a) Audience.

(b) Crowd.

(c) Population.

(d) None of these

162. Why should we select a sample?

(a) Not possible to study total population

(b) Economy of money

(c) Economy of time

(d) All of these.

163. What is the disadvantage of sampling?

(a) Better scrutiny of data

(b) Chances of bias

(c) Suitable in limited resources

(d) Greater speed.

164. What is the advantage of random sample?

(a) It is free of errors in classification

(b) It is free from bias and prejudice

(c) It is simple to use

(d) If the units are widely dispersed the selection of sample becomes impossi­ble.

165. Reliability in a test refers to

(a) Adequacy of standardization.

(b) Consistency in results.

(c) Objectivity in administering and scoring.

(d) None of the above.

166. What is an ideal sample in term of numbers?

(a) 10

(b) 1,000

(c) 4,000

(d) Million.

167. Which of the following does not determine the size of a sample?

(a) Nature of population

(b) Type of sampling design

(c) The degree of precision

(d) Knowledge of sampling.

168. Who said that “the problem is a proposed question for solution”?

(a) John C. Torensand

(b) J.C. Almak

(c) Fred N. Kurlinger

(d) John W. Best.

169. Who said, that the problem is an interroga­tive sentence or description in which correlation is found out between two or more variables?

(a) John C. Torensand

(b) Fred N. Kurlinger

(c) J.C. Almak

(d) George J. Mouley.

170. Who said that there are four criteria sources for identifying the problem of educational research?

(a) John C. Torensand

(b) Fred N. Kurlinger

(c) J.C. Almak

(d) George J. Mouley.

171. How many sources of Educational Research have been admitted by Goode, Barr and Scates?

(a) Four

(b) Five

(c) Six

(d) Seven.

172. The meaning of defining a problem is that it should be widely and properly determined. Who said this?

(a) W.S. Monroe

(b) F.L. Whitney

(c) George J. Mouley

(d) J.C. Almak.

173. What are the types of Educational Research Problems?

(a) Theoretical

(b) Applied

(c) Historical

(d) All of these.

174. “Hypothesis is a tentative supposition or provisional guess which sees and explains the situation under observation”. Who thus defines hypothesis?

(a) James E. Greetari

(b) John W. Best

(c) W.S. Monroe

(d) George J. Mouley.

175. Which of the following cannot be considered a quality of good hypothesis?

(a) Clarity

(b) Modifiability

(c) Plausibility

(d) Verifiability.

176. What is the name of an unknown variable that correlates with the independent variable and explains the outcome of the experiment in the same way as the specified independent variable does?

(a) A controlled variable

(b) An extraneous variable

(c) A confounded variable

(d) An implicit variable.

177. Why is it essential to convert the research hypothesis into null hypothesis?

(a) Because it does not express the relationship existing between the dependent and the independent variable.

(b) It is not a scientific statement

(c) It cannot be tested statistically

(d) It is a very general statement and does not indicate the specified direction of research.

178. The first Ph.D. in education in India was awarded by

(a) Calcutta University.

(b) Bombay University.

(c) Madras University.

(d) Punjab University.

179. Who has called sample an element of facts?

(a) W.G Kokaran

(b) John W. Best

(c) George J. Mouley

(d) W.S. Travers.

180. What is the advantage of selecting sample?

(a) Economy of time

(b) Economy of money

(c) Knowledge of more truth

(d) All of these.

181. What are the characteristics of good sample?

(a) Clarity

(b) Stability

(c) Flexibility

(d) All of these.

182. What are the main methods of selecting samples?

(a) Systematic sample

(b) Stratified sample

(c) Multiple samples

(d) All of these.

183. Which of the following is not true about hypothesis?

(a) They prejudice the researcher in favour of certain results

(b) They provide direction to research and prevent review of irrelevant literature and collection of useless data

(c) They enable the researcher to clarify the procedure and methods to be used in the research

(d) They act as a framework for stating the conclusions.

184. The view that a hypothesis is never proved; but merely sustained or rejected only tentatively, is

(a) A misconception.

(b) A correct and valid statement.

(c) A wrong assumption about hypothesis.

(d) A fact not accepted by all.

185. Which of the following is not true about hypothesis?

(a) They are intelligent guesses that offer possible solutions to problems

(b) They are the eyes of the researcher through which he looks into the disorder that is a problem and sees the possibilities of order.

(c) They are statements consisting of elements expressed in an orderly system relationship

(d) They are known facts discovered by the researcher from the forest of knowledge.

186. Which of the following statement is wrong about the data of the Descriptive Research?

(a) It may be qualitative, in verbal symbols

(b) It may be quantitative, in mathematical symbols.

(c) It may be qualitative and quantitative both

(d) It is only qualitative, never quantitative.

187. Which of the following methods should be used for establishing reliability of the questionnaire?

(a) Test-retest method

(b) Split-half method

(c) Parallel form method

(d) Rational equivalent method.

188. Which of the following statements is applicable to the unstructured interview?

(a) It is less flexible than the structured interview.

(b) It is not suited to getting varied responses.

(c) It is most appropriate for getting insight into a particular situation in the early stages of investigation

(d) It is one that operates on the basis of an interview schedule.

189. Which of the following is NOT the strength of the unstructured interview?

(a) Its flexibility

(b) Its usefulness in probing into attitudes and motives of which even the respondent may not be aware

(c) Its getting below the level of cliche’s in the instance

(d) Its simplicity.

190. Observing the behaviours, customs and ways of living of the group by way of becoming a regular member of the group, is known as

(a) Direct observation.

(b) Participant observation.

(c) Non-participant observation.

(d) Natural observation.

191. Identifying a factor to be measured by placing units or categories on a scale to differentiate varying degrees of that factor and describing these units in some manner is known as

(a) A checklist.

(b) A schedule,

(c) A test.

(d) A rating scale.

192. If a researcher conducts a research on finding out which administrative style contributes more to institutional effectiveness, it is an example of

(a) Basic research.

(b) Action research.

(c) Applied research.

(d) Fundamental research.

193. What is the variance calculated by averaging the squared deviations of the group from the grand mean and dividing it by the degrees of freedom?

(a) SSw

(b) SSA

(c) SST

(d) None of these.

194. In case of ANOVA if there are no treatment effects at all, then SSA will be equal to

(a) SSwv

(b) SST.

(c) SST + SSw.

(d) All of these.

195. In case of ANOVA if there are no treatment effects at all, then F-ratio will be

(a) Zero.

(b) +1.0.

(c) -1.0.

(d) Any value between 1.0. 1%.

196. What is the nature of F-test?

(a) Essentially a two-tailed test

(b) Essentially a one-tailed test

(c) Can be one-tailed as well as two-tailed depending on the hypothesis to be tested

(d) Can never be a one-tailed test.

197. Who developed Method of equal appearing intervals forming the basis of constructing attitude scales?

(a) Likert

(b) Thurstone and Chave

(c) Bogardus

(d) Guttman.

198. What is an attitude scale with five points on it varying from strongly approved to strongly disapproved?

(a) Likert type

(b) Thurstone type

(c) Bogardus type

(d) Guttman type.

199. What is an attitude scale in which each item’s value is calculated by finding out the mean or median of the ratings of a large number of judges on an eleven-point rating scale?

(a) Thurstone type

(b) Guttman type

(c) Bogardus type

(d) Likert type.

200. Which of the following situations calls for the use of a ratio-scale?

(a) A researcher waits to assert that the two persons X and V differ in their attitudes towards nationalization of education

(b) He wishes to state that the attitude of one person ‘X’ is more favourable than that of’Y’

(c) He wishes to make a statement that as compared to Y, ‘X’ is much more in favour of nationalization than he is, as compared to ‘Z’

(d) He wants to show that ‘X’ is twice as much in favour of Nationalization as ‘Y’.

Answers

101. (c) 102. (d) 103. (b) 104. (b) 105. (a) 106. (b) 107. (a) 108. (c) 109.(c) 110. (c) 111. (a) 112. (a) 113. (b) 114. (d)115. (c) 116. (d) 117.(c) 118. (c) 119. (b) 120. (d) 121. (a) 122. (b) 123. (c) 124. (c) 125. (d) 126. (a) 127. (c) 128. (d) 129. (a) 130. (b) 131. (c) 132. (c) 133. (c) 134. (b) 135. (a) 136. (b) 137. (c) 138. (c) 139.(c) 140. (c) 141. (b) 142(c) 143. (c) 144. (a) 145. (a,b,c) 146. (a) 147. (d) 148. (d) 149. (b) 150. (a) 151. (b) 152. (a) 153. (d) 154. (a) 155. (c) 156. (d) 157. (b) 158. (d) 159. (b) 160. (a) 161. (c) 162. (a) 163. (b) 164. (d) 165. (b) 166. (c) 167. (d) 168. (a) 169. (b) 170. (c) 171. (d) 172. (a) 173. (d) 174. (a) 175. (b) 176. (c) 177. (c) 178. (b) 179. (a) 180. (d) 181. (d) 182. (d) 183. (a) 184. (b) 185. (d) 186. (d) 187. (a) 188.(c) 189. (d) 190. (b) 191. (d) 192. (c) 193. (b) 194. (a) 195. (b) 196. (b) 197. (b) 198. (a) 199. (a) 200. (d)

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